PowerTube44
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- Jun 23, 2014
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Can someone please explain the logic behind this? Otherwise, I can only assume that there's none at all.
Observe the screenshot I took a few minutes ago:
So here we have a JCM of "unknown" (not listed) vintage, which could be one of the years that was supposed to be plagued with the bias drift issue, listed as POOR condition for $899.99.
To the left is a 2006 model, made after the bias drift issue was supposed to have been ironed out, listed as GREAT condition for $839.99, which is $60.00 cheaper.
So I must ask, is there any rhyme or reason to their pricing? Just to be clear, I'm not in the market for either. I'm just wondering if these numbers are pulled straight out of thin air or if there's supposed to be some sort of reasoning behind them.
It boggles the mind.
Observe the screenshot I took a few minutes ago:

So here we have a JCM of "unknown" (not listed) vintage, which could be one of the years that was supposed to be plagued with the bias drift issue, listed as POOR condition for $899.99.
To the left is a 2006 model, made after the bias drift issue was supposed to have been ironed out, listed as GREAT condition for $839.99, which is $60.00 cheaper.
So I must ask, is there any rhyme or reason to their pricing? Just to be clear, I'm not in the market for either. I'm just wondering if these numbers are pulled straight out of thin air or if there's supposed to be some sort of reasoning behind them.
It boggles the mind.